Philippians 2:5,8, "Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross." [italics mine]Unitarian Founding Father John Adams et al., would mis-translate these scriptures by siteing what is italicized, ignoring what Paul is saying about Jesus. Yes, Jesus was made a man.
Barrett's number 1. Because Jesus Christ is represented by the sacred writers to be as distinct a being from God the Father as one man is distinct from another. “It is written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true. I am one who bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me” (John 8:17 and 18).
Barrett and the unitarians, get confused that words proclaiming a difference in persons, refers to multiple Gods, ignoring Philippians 2. The Father is a distinct person, Jesus is a distinct person, and the Holy Spirit is a distinct person, but one God. I know, don't try and figure it out, it's beyond our comprehension. Here, is the Apostle John saying the Jews understood Jesus was declaring himself to be God:
John 5:18, "Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God."Therefore, the Jews understood Jesus claimed equality with the Father.
2. Because he not only never said that himself was God, but, on the contrary, spoke of the Father, who sent him, as God, and as the only God. “This is life eternal, that they might know Thee, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent” (John 17:3). This language our Saviour used in solemn prayer to “his Father and our Father.”
Jesus never claimed to be God? How could he and the unitarians miss these?
John 8:58,59, "Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham? Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by. [italics mine]Jesus took the very name God told Moses at the burning bush, and they tried to stone Him for it. It was Jesus at the burning bush! All revelation of God to man, apart from God declaring, "This is my beloved Son", is from Jesus. Thus, Jesus is the Creator of the universe; the Father, the architect. Jesus claims the same essence as the Father. "I am", is the self-existent one, omni-potent, omni-present, omni-science, etc.
3. Because he is declared, in unnumbered instances, to be the Son of God. “And lo, a voice from heaven, saying, this is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased” (Matt. 3:17). Can a son be coeval (the same age) and the same with his father? [italics mine]
How else could Barrett say this in light of John 5, and Philippians 2?
4. Because he is styled the Christ, or the anointed of God. “God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power” (Acts 10:38). Is he who anoints the same with him who is anointed?
Yes, Jesus is a man. Jesus is only different as Philippians says, "And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross." Jesus surrendered some of His attributes as God, by becoming a man. He couldn't fly, move in and out of dimensions, that He could do after His resurrection.
6. Because Christ is Mediator between the “One God,” and “men.” “For there is one God, and one Mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus” (1 Tim. 2:5).
By this very statement, Jesus must be God, as only God can access God. A man has no access to God. God would only reveal His back(glory) unto Moses:
Exodus 33:18,23, "And he said, I beseech thee, shew me thy glory. And he said, I will make all my goodness pass before thee, and I will proclaim the name of the LORD before thee; and will be gracious to whom I will be gracious, and will shew mercy on whom I will shew mercy. And he said, Thou canst not see my face: for there shall no man see me, and live. And the LORD said, Behold, there is a place by me, and thou shalt stand upon a rock: And it shall come to pass, while my glory passeth by, that I will put thee in a clift of the rock, and will cover thee with my hand while I pass by: And I will take away mine hand, and thou shalt see my back parts: but my face shall not be seen."12. Because Christ says, “My father is greater than all” (John 10:29). Is not the father, then greater than the son?
Greater than Jesus's human position, not in essence.
14. Because he virtually denies that he is God, when he exclaims, “Why callest thou me Good? There is none good but one, that is God” (Matt. 19:17).
Jesus is claiming the opposite. Jesus is either God or He isn't good.
17. Because an Apostle says of God, in distinction from the “Lord Jesus Christ,” that He is the “only Potentate,” and that He “only hath immortality” (1 Tim. 6:15 and 16).
Jesus died. The man died, yet, Barrett divorces the context from what he writes. Paul says Jesus, "Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen." Paul tells us the context, that Jesus has immortality, dwelling in unapproachable light. The immortality is connected to where He is.
The rest of Barrett's objections is a matter of semantics taken out of context. Jesus has all the attributes of God, besides those limited by putting on flesh. God is the judge, Jesus claimed to be the judge. God is the creator, Jesus claimed to be the creator, etc. God demands worship, Jesus said to worship me.